Embarkation
I'll read these sources but not only these, also other that I'm going to look for. It seems a problem of nationalism; I don't know if croatian or hungarian, but nationalism. I've seen book where it shows that Ladislav I gained Croatia but not as a conquest, but as a unión dinastic between Hungary and Croatia but linked to the Crown. The same for Coloman, but the problem is to know if after that Croatia exists or not as a kingdom, because Bela III anexed Dalamatia, Bosnia and Croatia. Did he remove their isntitutions?; Croatia could be under the control of Hungary but continued being a kingdom, like many others. The sources aren't many clear. I'll search, and so, I'll write in consequence. Millars (discusión) 10:13 22 may 2009 (UTC)
- I've changed Colomán I de Hungría according to the sources. To be king of Hungary and king of Croatia at the same time is not a problem. He conquest Croatia and the source that I've added says specifically that he was king of Croatia. Millars (discusión) 10:29 22 may 2009 (UTC)
- Hello another time. Please, read this and this book. There are more but I think is enough to show that Hungarian kings were also Croatian king, and even, according to East Central Europe in the Middle Ages, they termed themselves "King of Hungary, Croatia and Dalmatia" (pag. 49). I think it'd be better to discuss that in an specific discussion page, and to stop the reversions. Millars (discusión) 10:54 22 may 2009 (UTC)
- Hi. I am going to stats my exams tomorrow, so I will not have enough time to read, so I'll try to persuade another user to work in this matter. However, I'm more sure that there was an union between Croatia and Hungary at the time of Ladislav I and Coloman. This book says in its page 34 that "In contrast to Croatia, which always remained a separated realm..." and in the page 35 "Croatia was henceforth to be ruled by the kings of Hungary, but it was given an associate status and was not incorporated into Hungary". So, it seems that the kings of Hungary were also kings of Croatia, but Croatia was another kingdom into the geater kingdom of Hungary, like the Crown of Aragon with its different kingdoms, counties and duchies. Even when Hungarian kings defeated Croatia and annexed it they could be kings of both kingdoms. Millars (discusión) 17:04 24 may 2009 (UTC)
- In my last message I've wrote some words about that which proved that these kings were at the same time kings of Croatia and Hungary, both titles under one crown. It doesn't depend of the way, if it was annexed by conquest or heritage, that doesn't change the other. I was talking with other sysops and they read our proves and they thought that they have both titles. Millars (discusión) 14:54 17 jul 2009 (UTC)
- Do you say that Croatia was not a kingdom of the Hungarian king? because that's that you have said in your last message. Now, Spain is only one state, but for example, Philip II was king of Castille, Aragon, Naples, etc. If the Hungarina king wasn't the king of Croatia, who it was? Millars (discusión) 12:29 23 jul 2009 (UTC)
- What a coincidence, but the page 267 was not available as a preview, however, in the page 266 this book says "However, a complete conquest of Croatia took place under King Coloman (1095-1116), who in 10978 defeat Peter, the last Croatian ruler, in the Kapela Mountains. Coloman was crowned King of Croatia in Biograd 1102." The fact that a territory was governed by a ban doesn't mean that it doesn't have a king. Fot example, Naples, Aragon, Valencia, etc. had their viceroy but they were a different kingdom from Castille. This site is like a site that talk about Phillip II of Spain as a King of Spain only, but actually he was king of many kingdoms. I've showed you books that revealed that the King of Hungary was also King of Croatia, and you don't show me proves that it was wrong, only the Britannica, but that doesn't prove that, only omited the other titles. Show me a book that says that Croatia lost all its laws and institutions and that the kingdom disapperaed. And now you are accussin me of vandalism? Millars (discusión) 17:03 31 jul 2009 (UTC)
- These sources don't change my point of view. In my fourth message there are proves that Croatia was a kingdom into the greater kingdom or Crown of Hungary. Here you can read that "Coloman's coronation as a king of Croatia..." and says that he was king of Croatia. And the same in the last message. And the book of Kinder and Hilgemann is an important source. The problem with the Pacta Conventa is about the Croatian nobles privileges, not about the coronation. Millars (discusión) 14:35 3 ago 2009 (UTC)
- What a coincidence, but the page 267 was not available as a preview, however, in the page 266 this book says "However, a complete conquest of Croatia took place under King Coloman (1095-1116), who in 10978 defeat Peter, the last Croatian ruler, in the Kapela Mountains. Coloman was crowned King of Croatia in Biograd 1102." The fact that a territory was governed by a ban doesn't mean that it doesn't have a king. Fot example, Naples, Aragon, Valencia, etc. had their viceroy but they were a different kingdom from Castille. This site is like a site that talk about Phillip II of Spain as a King of Spain only, but actually he was king of many kingdoms. I've showed you books that revealed that the King of Hungary was also King of Croatia, and you don't show me proves that it was wrong, only the Britannica, but that doesn't prove that, only omited the other titles. Show me a book that says that Croatia lost all its laws and institutions and that the kingdom disapperaed. And now you are accussin me of vandalism? Millars (discusión) 17:03 31 jul 2009 (UTC)
- Do you say that Croatia was not a kingdom of the Hungarian king? because that's that you have said in your last message. Now, Spain is only one state, but for example, Philip II was king of Castille, Aragon, Naples, etc. If the Hungarina king wasn't the king of Croatia, who it was? Millars (discusión) 12:29 23 jul 2009 (UTC)
- In my last message I've wrote some words about that which proved that these kings were at the same time kings of Croatia and Hungary, both titles under one crown. It doesn't depend of the way, if it was annexed by conquest or heritage, that doesn't change the other. I was talking with other sysops and they read our proves and they thought that they have both titles. Millars (discusión) 14:54 17 jul 2009 (UTC)
- Hi. I am going to stats my exams tomorrow, so I will not have enough time to read, so I'll try to persuade another user to work in this matter. However, I'm more sure that there was an union between Croatia and Hungary at the time of Ladislav I and Coloman. This book says in its page 34 that "In contrast to Croatia, which always remained a separated realm..." and in the page 35 "Croatia was henceforth to be ruled by the kings of Hungary, but it was given an associate status and was not incorporated into Hungary". So, it seems that the kings of Hungary were also kings of Croatia, but Croatia was another kingdom into the geater kingdom of Hungary, like the Crown of Aragon with its different kingdoms, counties and duchies. Even when Hungarian kings defeated Croatia and annexed it they could be kings of both kingdoms. Millars (discusión) 17:04 24 may 2009 (UTC)
- Hello another time. Please, read this and this book. There are more but I think is enough to show that Hungarian kings were also Croatian king, and even, according to East Central Europe in the Middle Ages, they termed themselves "King of Hungary, Croatia and Dalmatia" (pag. 49). I think it'd be better to discuss that in an specific discussion page, and to stop the reversions. Millars (discusión) 10:54 22 may 2009 (UTC)
Another user thinks the same, so, please, if you don't have sources that say that the Hngarian king wasn't the king of Croatia, please, stop of changing the article. You can ask to another user if you don't trust in me. Millars (discusión) 14:56 6 ago 2009 (UTC)
- In the previous messages I've written This book says in its page 34 that "In contrast to Croatia, which always remained a separated realm..." and in the page 35 "Croatia was henceforth to be ruled by the kings of Hungary, but it was given an associate status and was not incorporated into Hungary". So, if you don't prove that at the time of Andrew II, Croatia was anexed or had lost his laws, then Croatia was a Kingdom into the Hungarian Crown, and the Kings og Hungary were also kings of Croatia. Millars (discusión) 16:29 6 ago 2009 (UTC)
Croatia and Hungary
editarHi. Im terrible sorry to dissapoint you but Croatia's king passed to be Hungary's king in 1091, when the last croatian king, Zvonimir died. His wife was a hungarian princes, sister of Saint Ladislaus, and as the laws on the time required it, the heir to the kingdom was the widow and his brother, the hungarian king. From that point if you check any hungarian map, you will see that Croatia is part of the hungarian territory, and if you check the coats of arms, Croatia's coat of arms will be always included into Hungary's.
When the croatian kingdom was occupied, it didnt resist, or fought back, it just received Ladislaus troops and people as they were their own, and in many wars in the following years, Croatia /Dalmatia, fought along with Hungary agaisnt Venice, wich wanted to take control of the atached kingdom.
As you can see, what happened to croatia, is more or less the same that happened to the mere Hungary when in 1526 lost its last king. When the austrians "saved" the hungarian kingdom from the turkish, and finally recovered it in the 1686, the hungarian king (and the coratian king) passed to be the emperor of the Holy Roman Empire (and then the austrian emperor). And all this isnt any supposition or speculation that we do according to maps, or coats of arms, is just a fact that hungarian and croatian people knows since the the XI century. regards.
hi
editarna tessék. Most mi a nagy hűhó? Ahogy tudom hosszú és nagy viszály zajlik egy másik íróval Horvátoszrággal kapcsolatban. Hogy segíthetek? amúgy te tudsz spanyolul?
szia
editarHát szerencsére nem fogsz csaláodást okozni nekem, ne félj. Én a szakdolgozatomat a kereszténységről MO-on szent istván és szent lászló korában, szal egy kicsit értek ehhez a dologhoz. Hát sajnálom, de Könyves Kálmánt 1102-ben Horváth királlyá koronázták, és azt bárhol találhatod, pl én a "Bertényi, I. , Diószegi, I. , Horváth, J. , Kalmár, J. y Szabó P. (2004). Királyok Könyve. Magyarország és Erdély királyai, királynői, fejedelmei és kormányzói. Budapest, Hungría: Helikon Kiadó." könyvet használom, ami nagyon komplet, de interneten wikipédián, meg bárhol vagy bármilyen másik könyvben is találhatod. A Szilágyi Sándor enciklopédiája nagyon jó és régi, meg megbízható mert még I. vh előtti is, de nagyon érdekes hogy épp ezt az eseményt nem idézi. Ajánlom neked a Szalay-Baróti: magyar történelem enciklopédiát, meg a Hóman-Szekfűs-t is, hiszen majdnem egykorúak, és ugyanarról szólnak, sok különböző információ található.
Ahogy a német romai császárság koronának egy ékszere voltunk, a horvátok a miénké, és az nem horvát hazudság, mindenki tudta, és főleg a magyar nemesség. Másrészt, hogy hatalmas kiváltságai voltak, hát azt kétlem. Itt nem arról van szó hogy unió vagy megegyzés volt, és igen Horvátország egy tartomány volt magyarországon belül, egy bánság, és a kormányzója a horvát bán volt, de a királya, a magyar király volt, legalább még Könyves Kálmán korában. Méghozzá, Szilágyi használja azt a kifejezést hogy "Horvátország meghódítása" és én eléggé eltérek ebben, hiszen nem volt se harc, se küzdelem, se ellenkezés, és még törvényi jog is volt, hiszen nem volt se utód se semmi, és a királnyé, Ilona (sz. lászlónak a felesége), megörökölte és így a magyar király. Ez a bonyolult férj feleség testvér örökösödési dolog hasonlóan megy pl Zsigmond királlyal, és Mária királnyével, Nagy Lajos feleségével, csak itt a király MO-on maradt, magyarul beszélt, és nem csatolta a királyságot egy másik fontossabb királysághoz.
Apropó, csak kíváncsisságból, hány éves vagy? honnan támadt ez a történelmi érdeklődés így hirtelen, és még spanyolul?
hi
editarszia. Azt hogy lászlót horvát királlyá koronázták, mindenki tudja, hogy sose történt, meg azt is, hogy Kálmán után az a szokás se létezett, és igen, a horvát "főuralkodó", a horvát bán fölött az a magyar király volt, de ő maga horvát király nem volt. Viszont azt, hogy nem volt igaz az h kálmán horvát király lett, nem lehet tudni, és ez csak egy elmélet, vagy kommentár, azért ajánlottam, hogy több forrást is olvassál. A másik az hogy az osztrák uralom alatt, ahogy a komunistában már lett a történelem irányítása, akkor is hamisítottak, torzítottak, meg "különös" adatokat iktattak be. Ha van msned akkor vegyél fel nyugodtan: xxxx mert érdekel, hogy érdekel téged ez az egész.
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editarMár beszéltem a Milliarssal.. és mindent megmagyaráztam .. most csak tőle függ.. én nemtom kijavítani... mármint ő a szerkeztő. És sajnálom a kedvesség hiányodat, hogy nem érdekel új emebrekkel éritkezésbe lépni akikkel összebarátkozhatnál a jövőben mert közös témák vannak. helló